Based on the assumption that abrasive polishes are like liquid sandpaper, does the following theory hold true based on the abrasiveness of the products:
If I were to polish an area 3 times with #80 would that equate to polishing 1 time with say #83.
This theory is based on the assumption that each time you polish with #80 you are taking a bit more off the surface which at some point would equal the amount #83 would take off in 1 pass.
Thoughts ?
If I were to polish an area 3 times with #80 would that equate to polishing 1 time with say #83.
This theory is based on the assumption that each time you polish with #80 you are taking a bit more off the surface which at some point would equal the amount #83 would take off in 1 pass.
Thoughts ?
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